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Indian Polity

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Postgraduate level — Indian Polity

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President

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Vice-Precident

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Prime Minister & Council of Ministers

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The Parliament

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Constitution & Preamble

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Fundamental Rights

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Directive Principles

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Parliament & Legislature

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Judiciary & Federalism

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quiz Questions

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Q101

Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the President of India during a state of Emergency: 1. The President can declare a National Emergency under Article 352 only on a written recommendation of the entire Union Cabinet. 2. A proclamation of President's Rule under Article 356 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. 3. The President can declare a Financial Emergency under Article 360, which remains in operation indefinitely until revoked. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 · 2 marks · MCQ

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All statements are correct. Statement 1 reflects the safeguard added by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, requiring a written decision from the Cabinet for a National Emergency under Article 352. Under Article 356, Parliament must approve President's rule within two months (Statement 2). Under Article 360, Financial Emergency operates indefinitely until revoked since no maximum period is prescribed for its operation (Statement 3).

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Q102

Which of the following bodies is NOT appointed or constituted directly by the President of India?

1 · 2 marks · MCQ

A.

The Finance Commission

B.

The Union Public Service Commission

C.

The Inter-State Council

D.

The Planning Commission (NITI Aayog)

Explanation

The Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President, but the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) as an administrative body is formed under the CVC Act. More directly, Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) or the National Development Council were created by executive resolutions of the Government/Cabinet, not directly under constitutional mandates assigned to the President like the Finance Commission (Article 280), UPSC (Article 315), or Inter-State Council (Article 263). Looking at administrative bodies, the Planning Commission / NITI Aayog is constituted by a Union Cabinet resolution.

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Q103

If a situation arises where the offices of both the President and the Vice-President of India are vacant simultaneously, who shall discharge the functions of the President under the Constitution?

1 · 2 marks · MCQ

A.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

B.

The Senior-most Governor of a State

C.

The Chief Justice of India

D.

The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Explanation

According to the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969, in the event of concurrent vacancies in the offices of both the President and the Vice-President, the Chief Justice of India (CJI) or, in his absence, the senior-most judge of the Supreme Court of India available, shall discharge the duties of the President.

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Q104

Consider the following statements regarding the Pardoning Power of the President of India under Article 72 of the Constitution: 1. The power can be exercised in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial. 2. The President can completely pardon a death sentence, a power that is not shared with the Governor of a State under Article 161. 3. The petitioner has a constitutional right to an oral hearing by the President while seeking mercy. Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 · 2 marks · MCQ

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Under Article 72, the President is the exclusive authority to grant pardon in sentences passed by a Court Martial and has sole power to completely pardon a death sentence (Governors under Article 161 can only suspend, remit, or commute a death sentence, but cannot completely pardon it). Statement 3 is incorrect because the Supreme Court has ruled that a petitioner seeking mercy under Article 72 does not possess a constitutional right to an oral hearing by the President.

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Q105

Which Constitutional Amendment Act substituted the phrase 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' under Article 352, thereby altering the grounds on which the President can declare a National Emergency?

1 · 2 marks · MCQ

A.

38th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975

B.

42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976

C.

44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978

D.

86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002

Explanation

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 introduced severe safeguards against emergency power execution, substituting 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion' under Article 352. This eliminated the vagueness of the term previously utilized to declare the 1975 emergency configuration.

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Q106

According to Article 103 of the Constitution of India, if any question arises as to whether a member of either House of Parliament has become subject to any disqualifications mentioned in Article 102(1), the question shall be referred for the decision of the President. Whose opinion must the President obtain before delivering this decision?

1 · 2 marks · MCQ

A.

The Supreme Court of India

B.

The Election Commission of India

C.

The Attorney General of India

D.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Explanation

Article 103(2) mandates that before giving any decision on disqualification parameters under Article 102(1) (such as holding an office of profit or unsound mind), the President shall obtain the opinion of the Election Commission of India and shall act according to such opinion.

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Q107

Consider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the President of India: 1. The President can nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if it is under-represented. 2. The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 · 2 marks · MCQ

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

Both 1 and 2

D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 2 is correct under Article 80, which allows the President to nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha based on literature, science, art, and social service parameters. Statement 1 is incorrect because the provision to nominate two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha under Article 331 was explicitly discontinued by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.

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Q108

Which constitutional parameter outlines the mechanism for calculating the value of a single vote cast by an elected member of a State Legislative Assembly (MLA) in the Presidential election under Article 55?

1 · 2 marks · MCQ

A.

Total population of the State divided by the total number of elected members of the assembly, further divided by 1000.

B.

Total number of registered voters in the state divided by the total number of assembly seats.

C.

Total revenue of the State divided by the total number of elected members across Parliament.

D.

Total population of India divided by the total number of assembly seats across all states combined.

Explanation

The value of an MLA's vote is calculated mathematically by taking the total population of the state (currently indexed to the 1971 census standard metrics) and dividing it by the total number of elected members in the State Legislative Assembly, and then dividing the quotient by 1000.

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Q109

Which of the following situations represents a true constitutional discretion (situational discretion) available to the President of India under the constitutional framework?

1 · 2 marks · MCQ

A.

Withholding assent to a Money Bill passed by Parliament.

B.

Appointment of a Prime Minister when no single party or clear coalition has an absolute majority in the Lok Sabha.

C.

Promulgating an ordinance under Article 123 without the recommendation of the Union Cabinet.

D.

Dismissal of a Governor of a State before the completion of their tenure independent of prime ministerial advice.

Explanation

The President of India has situational discretion in the appointment of a Prime Minister when no single party or clear coalition commands an absolute majority in the Lok Sabha. Promulgating ordinances (Article 123) or withholding assent to Money Bills are actions bound strictly by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

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Q110

Regarding the legislative ordinance-making power of the President of India under Article 123 of the Constitution, which of the following parameters is constitutionally correct?

1 · 2 marks · MCQ

A.

An ordinance can amend or repeal a Constitutional Amendment Act enacted under Article 368.

B.

The legislative power of the President to issue an ordinance is much wider in scope than the law-making power of Parliament.

C.

The satisfaction of the President in promulgating an ordinance cannot be questioned or challenged in a court of law under any circumstances.

D.

An ordinance must be laid before both Houses of Parliament and ceases to operate after six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, unless approved earlier.

Explanation

An ordinance issued under Article 123 cannot amend or repeal the Constitution of India; constitutional amendments must follow the strict procedure prescribed under Article 368. An ordinance is co-extensive with Parliament's legislative power regarding subjects, and the President's satisfaction is subject to judicial review as established in Supreme Court rulings.